Court appearance

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Re: Court appearance

Postby brindleskye » Thu Apr 29, 2010 6:41 am

tomrush wrote:That implies that the bank didn't magic the money out of the aether when the agreement was signed. These banks do NOT field their own money to give out loans and the like - there can be no loss when they never brought anything to the table in the first place.


Unfortunately that is an urban myth. Carr Vs Carr of 1811 established in law that money held by a bank is the property of the bank. Your bank statement is nothing more than in IOU.

Banks are permitted in law to land up to 15% of deposits to any one individual. Under the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989, Building Societies were required to follow the same lending limits.
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Re: Court appearance

Postby fmotl69 » Wed Jun 09, 2010 2:35 am

brindle sky wrore:

"You could go down the 'prove that it is my signature' route but you might come unstuck. You would have to argue that as it is 'not' your signature then you didn't apply for the loan; however, they will be able to prove very easily that the money was paid into your bank account in which case as you have probably spent the money you would have to return it. Not to do so is is theft."

Absolutely not; it is impossible to be theft. The 'money' only existed, as soon as a signature was placed on that document. It was never the banks original property and have therefore, not made any loss, of any kind for them to claim theft of personal property. Until we can see the original and prove that there are any wet ink signatures on questioned document for lending of property, it can never be proved that they or you, ever actually physically signed it, until the original document is produced (otherwise the photocopy stands as a fraudulent document until proven innocent in a court of law). Where are the witnesses who can verify such a claim of theft? It cannot be a criminal charge, there is no injured party to make such criminal claims in this situation.
You will never see the original, they sold it to gain the 'money' to give you and have a little extra for expenses. Then they charge you for the newly created money with interest and make a little bit more and believe this is somehow lawful?
Can anyone at the bank making the claim, continue to do so (with a straight face), after reading their Bank of England 2008 quarterly report, through a megaphone (at the start of court proceedings), as he still tries to claim you stole from them, under common law? Where is the judges Oath and how can he possibly make any judgment on any claims made?

brindlesky, I apologise if I am wrong but that is the way I see it. Also, there was no physical 'cash' to be verified as evidence, as it was paid in to your account via computer. The recipient did not see that original 'sum of money'.... ever! (nor, the (self-proclaimed) 'lender') Could someone from the bank swear under Oath that they witnessed the physical 'cash' before it was deposited into your bank account?
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Re: Court appearance

Postby fmotl69 » Wed Jun 09, 2010 3:16 am

And In Carr vs Carr 1811 the money supply was completely different, they were not using a fiat currency.
We were officially bankrupt in 1925. There is nothing to 'back' the money, give it any value, other than your belief and whatever the government deem it to be worth.
When they ask you to pay back the money, ask them........x,xxx pounds of what?
Would you like to see the sum of x,xxx pounds?
If I can get the sum of x,xxx pounds, you can have it immediatly. A sum of say £20 is no more than; imagination of credit. And a faith (credit) can not be produced physically as £20 to give them.....correct?

I have not heard the case of Carr vs Carr, but based on research and facts being the only 'thing' brought to the table (other than an accused fraudulent non-wet signature) in this whole affair.
If we (United Kingdom) were using a fiat currency during 1811, I apologise and do ignore this entire post.
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